An email is sent with a script signature. The person replies with the original email below. The reply email is not plain text yet the signature on the original email is no longer in the script font.



Why?

Mark

The signature was in the replied email...just not the same script font.

Sorry but my situation begs to differ--hence my initial post.

I thought the only way for the signature to change was if the person replying did so in plain text. However I can assure you my wife did nothing but send/receive the email in question. She never changed the signature font and the reply was not plain text.

I'm wondering if the receiver's email client/OS didn't have the script font and substituted same when initially opening her email.

My error in not being complete with the initial question.

Her concern seeing the originally sent email from her machine with the correct font being returned absent the font was not seeing the signature incorrectly when it came back but wondering if the signature was correct (as sent by her) when opened on the recipient's machine.

Does the fact that the signature returned has a font but the incorrect font mean that the recipient's machine:

1. read the email as rtf, changed the font accordingly and sent it back as such
2. didn't have the font and substituted

?